Something I noticed while listening on youtube to Pelléas and Mélisande by Claude Debussy, is that the singers always pronounce the endings (peuv-ENT, aim-ENT). This opera was composed 100 years ago. Was french so different then? It seems implausible to mispronounce so many words for purely musical reasons.
Why you should pronounce the silent endings (peuv-ENT, aim-ENT) ?
in French Grammar
Posted
Something I noticed while listening on youtube to Pelléas and Mélisande by Claude Debussy, is that the singers always pronounce the endings (peuv-ENT, aim-ENT). This opera was composed 100 years ago. Was french so different then? It seems implausible to mispronounce so many words for purely musical reasons.