JFellow

Reviving this thread: Learning "textbook Spanish" in the US, I was taught "unfamiliar and familiar rules" for second person. But the second person has long bothered me in Spanish. After starting to research topics which interested me such as this, I realized that the "rules" for familiar and unfamiliar I was taught are nonsense. The use of the second person varies widely across the Spanish speaking world, even vosotro/as was spoken in Latin America "not that long ago". Anyhow there are many resources online, but here is an eye opening map of current second person "cultural usage" around the world, https://alturainteractive.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/08/tu-and-usted-usage-fixed.jpg-2.png

I agree with your own assessment. In English I can say, What sayest thou? This is purely second person singular. Or I could say, What sayest thou, and what say the rest of you? In this case I simply have added a plural second person to the original singular second person. Or I could simply say, How are ya'll? I mean how art thou, and the kids? Second person and more than one so plural. Also he/she is simply stating a fact of being (where they are from), which applies to them all.

Hello all. I am a new member, and user. I am perhaps just past beginner level in Spanish. I am working my way through a modified Michel Thomas Spanish course. I am also trying to read through the old 1569, 1602, and also 1602p Spanish Bible versions (also looking at others). I would like to read older Castilian Spanish as well as understand and speak Spanish fluently some day. Any grammar questions I find from reading the Reina Valera I try to research online, and usually I figure it out. However in Genesis 2.3 I am stumped at something that may be simple. Y bendijo Dios al día séptimo, y santificólo, porque en él reposó de toda su obra que había Dios creado y hecho. And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made. The only thing I am wondering about is , "porque en él reposó" specifically I am wondering if the "it" is "silently understood" somehow, even though it is not written. I would perhaps expect it to say, "porque en lo él reposó". Please, can anyone explain this? Thanks.