ilya Posted December 8, 2021 Report Share Posted December 8, 2021 Possesive case. Rephrase sentence. Example This house belongs to Mr. Smith. → This is Mr. Smith’s house. OK! And for me... || This flat belongs to Jerry. -> This is Jerry's flat || And it's easy for me.BUT why "the" in this -> || These shoes belong to the dancers -> These are THE dancers' shoes || Why is there an article if the word 'dancers' is plural? Can you explain me? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidWillson Posted September 26, 2023 Report Share Posted September 26, 2023 I want to help you. I am now actively preparing for the MCAT https://edureviewer.com/kaplan-vs-princeton-review-mcat/ for medical school. I know that this exam is one of the most difficult, so I decided to take a preparatory course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cake38 Posted January 23 Report Share Posted January 23 The use of "the" before "dancers" in the sentence "These shoes belong to the dancers -> These are THE dancers' shoes" is to specify a particular group of dancers. When you use "the" in this context, you are referring to a specific set of dancers, not just any dancers in general. Without "the," the sentence would be more general: "These shoes belong to dancers," which could mean any group of dancers. By adding "the," you are indicating that these shoes specifically belong to a particular group of dancers, perhaps the ones currently being discussed or the ones that everyone knows about in the context of the conversation. So, "These are THE dancers' shoes" implies that you are talking about a specific group of dancers whose shoes you are referring to. The use of "the" helps to make the possessive more specific in this case. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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