zcrooks322 Posted January 24, 2014 Report Share Posted January 24, 2014 I don't have any background in the Italian language nor its older and/or dialectal forms. So I hope, someone can help me with a very specific problem ^^ How much differs the modern Italian language from the Italian during the Renaissance? To be more precise, the Italian spoken in Florence around 1500. Or a bit more hypothetical: Assuming Leonardo da Vinci met someone from our modern time, would he be able to understand him? And vice versa? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cat Posted August 7, 2014 Report Share Posted August 7, 2014 Short answer is "yes, I'd understand Leonardo but it would be hard"....Florentine from 16th century isn't easy to understand nevertheless it is understandable... But I guess that nowadays it would be possible to understand only the language that comes from Florence area, the language on which modern Italian it is derived... Other dialects are totally impossible to understand even nowadays: e.g. A guy from Verona, north east of Italy has no chance of understanding a person from Vibo Valentia, south of Italy and vice versa if they were to speak their respective dialectsSorry for reopening this old topic but it seemed a good one and I didn't want for it to go unresolved... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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